Re: Can anyone explain this?

Posted by Christina (152.163.201.192) on February 02, 2003 at 13:36:31:

In Reply to: Re: Can anyone explain this? posted by WHY CHAT on February 02, 2003 at 13:19:44:

Sorry this is so long.

Thanks for the reply. I guess it does make sense.

What would happen if the CA couldn't produce the siged agreement between you and the OC?

Would they be able to "justify" the interest and finance amount added?, or for that matter, prove that the debt is actually owed?

Just out of curiosity, is there an "average" interest or finance charge amount? I'm specifically speaking about Providian?

This is stemming from a lawsuit filed by an attorney on behalf of New Century Financial Services, who, in turn, has purchased the Providian debt.

Right off the bat, the first communication from the Attorney doesn't have the 30 day validation clause. I know I can CC for $1000 for the FDCPA violation.

The first letter from the attorney, 12/12/02 states the amount owed as $1,576.24 with options of reduced settlement.

The lawsuit served 1/27/03, is asking for $1,396.41 plus finance charges from charge-off date of 8/00 in the amount of $663.85, plus attorney's fees and costs. Total $2,388.11

How can the amount owed on 12/12/02 be $1576.24 and then be ($1396.42 plus $663.85) $2060.26 on 1/27/03?

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