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Posted by Anon (198.81.19.153) on February 06, 2003 at 04:20:19:

I have read that depending on the state one can be served a summons in person, one can be served by anyone in the household accepting the papers, by mail, or by publication. Is that really so? How can this be possible if one might not read the notice published on a paper ( what kind of paper would such thing be in anyway? ),the person might be out of town and not get their mail for months. I travel often out of the country and while away I pay all my bills on the internet, whatever correspondence I receive while away is held by the PO until my return. Mail is lost and incorrectly delivered daily. How can any state approve such methods, the only acceptable to me is if the person receives and signs the papers.
Thanks in advance for any answer I might get.


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