LadynRed, is this correct?
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Posted by Kimbo
(165.97.14.100) on July 24, 2003 at 17:44:32:
I noticed you posted this on the judgement/garnishment issue and was wondering if it was true since we've been discussing the fact that garnishments AREN'T allowed in Texas: As Patti said, in MOST cases a garnishment is the RESULT of a judgment. In some states, like TX, there are 'pre-judgment' remedies and they can garnish before they get a judgment.
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