Another question

Posted by Sloane (64.167.200.177) on August 15, 2003 at 20:38:06:

I remember posting a question about sending a check that constitute payment in full to a CA and someone told me that it doesn't work. I found a law here in California that people can get around it the law that state that creditors can sue by using certain languages.

I'm confuse, is there such a thing or not?

Follow Ups:

Post a Followup